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Post by Dandelion on Mar 28, 2007 19:05:31 GMT -5
I think this came up here somewhere before, but I'd like to ask again. I'd like to study this issue futhur. Should we or do we not need to soak our grains, or somehow else take care of the phytic acid? Right now I'm inclinedt o agree with this article here. articles.urbanhomemaker.com/index.php?page=index_v2&id=639&c=root It's not a thing that we havet o do all the time, but it would be best much of the time. I came acrossa comment in a book that in the past the grain was left in the field in sheaves overnight which also started it to germinate, doing the same thing, and of course nowadays that's is done much quicker with machinery.
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Post by Dandelion on Mar 29, 2007 14:11:10 GMT -5
O.K. I've just found Beckers article on their site. She has done some interesting study on it, both for and against. It would appear to me that the bread in the Bible was both leavened and unleavened. Leavening it neccesitated several hours of soaking, (They had time for the first passover to kill and cook a lamb, but not for the bread to rise) unlike today when it's done in 2 hours with commercial yeasts. My Grandmother said the same, it always used to take several hours for it to rise. I'd love to look into commercial yeasts, too, as I suspect most of them would have plenty of sugar.
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Post by Mom2boys on Mar 29, 2007 14:59:50 GMT -5
Sue Becker is of the opinion that we do not need to soak our grains for digestive reasons.
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